There is a BMW I am particularly interested in. Seller is asking thirteen hundred bux; however, he says he never bothered to change the title to his name when he bought the car a year ago. I guess he didn't want to pay taxes. Therefore, if I buy the BMW, the title will indicate the seller as a guy I have never met or talked to. Do yall think there might be any issue?
The reason I ask is that I feel this arrangement might not meet the rule in the state of Texas that "only the seller is authorized to sell the vehicle." I guess the issue comes down to who is the owner in the eyes of the law: this guy I'm dealing with or the previous owner.